A 52-year-old man presents with bilateral leg pain, persisting for several months. He has been diagnosed with sciatica on the left side and truncated cruralgia on the right side. Additionally, he underwent surgery for a compressive herniated disc at the L4/L5 level on 30/01/2023. Unfortunately, during immediate post-operative manipulation, he experienced a spontaneous, non-traumatic fracture of the right femoral shaft on the same date. How would you manage this condition?

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Dr. U N

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Active Contributor

The evaluation for osteoporosis and subsequent treatment are essential for the patient to reduce the likelihood of experiencing further fractures.

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